Which one of these is a correct interpretation of a cash coverage ratio of $1\mathrm{.}4?$

Multiple choice question.

A cash coverage ratio of $1\mathrm{.}4$ indicates a firm has $$1\mathrm{.}40$ in cash for every dollar of its annual fixed expenses.

A cash coverage ratio of $1\mathrm{.}4$ indicates a firm has $$1\mathrm{.}40$ in cash for every dollar of interest it owes for the year.

A cash coverage ratio of $1\mathrm{.}4$ indicates a firm generates $$1\mathrm{.}40$ of operating cash for every dollar of interest and fixed charges that the firm owes.

A cash coverage ratio of $1\mathrm{.}4$ indicates a firm has $$1\mathrm{.}40$ in operating cash for every dollar of long$-$term debt.