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Why did the government allow for greater tax avoidance (like the carried interest loophole) in the 1950s rather than just lowering the overall tax rates?

Why did the government allow for greater tax avoidance (like the carried interest loophole) in the 1950s rather than just lowering the overall tax rates?

How are rich workers like hedge fund managers able to pay taxes on their earnings at the lower capital gains rate than at the normal personal income rate?

What role do tax breaks and loopholes like this have on income inequality?

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