In Olympic running events, preliminary heats are determined by random draw, so we should expect that the abilities of runners in the various heats to be about the same, on average. Here are the times (in seconds) for the 400-m women's run in the 2012 Olympics in Lon-don for preliminary heats 2 and 5. Is there any evidence that the mean time to finish is different for randomized heats? Explain. Be sure to include a discussion of assumptions and conditions for your analysis. (Use Tukey's test to compare the mean times in each heat Do your conclusions change?)