An instructor standardizes her midterm and final each semester so the class average is 50 and the SD is 10 on both tests. The correlation between the tests is around 0.50. One semester, she took all the students who scored below 30 at the midterm, and gave them special tutoring. They all scored above 50 on the final. Can this be explained by the regression effect? Answer yes or no, and explain briefly. PL968