It seems obvious that political persuasion affects beliefs about what the government can and cannot do. However, do the data support this belief? Is there enough statistical evidence to infer that differences exist between the three political groups (PARTYID3: 1 = Democrat, 2 = Independent, 3 = Republican) with respect to the following question, “Should government reduce income differences between rich and poor (EQWLTH: 1 = Government should reduce differences; 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 = No government action)?