According to the second form of Kants categorical imperative, would it be morally permissible for me to

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According to the second form of Kant’s categorical imperative, would it be morally permissible for me to agree to be someone’s slave? Explain.

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Ethics Theory and Contemporary Issues

ISBN: 978-1285196756

8th edition

Authors: Barbara MacKinnon, Andrew Fiala

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Question Posted: Dec 30, 2014 11:25 AM

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According to the second form of Kants categorical imperative, would it be morally permissible for me to

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No it would not be morally permissible to agree to be someones slave because the second ...View the full answer

Ethics Theory and Contemporary Issues

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