Explain why the observation (P_{0}left(bar{X}_{n}>1ight) ightarrow 0) as (n ightarrow infty) deduced from simulations does not conflict
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Explain why the observation \(P_{0}\left(\bar{X}_{n}>1ight) ightarrow 0\) as \(n ightarrow \infty\) deduced from simulations does not conflict with the law of large numbers \(\bar{X}_{n} ightarrow 1\).
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