Robert Clower argued that either Walrass law is incompatible with Keynesian economics, or Keynes had nothing fundamentally
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Robert Clower argued that “either Walras’s law is incompatible with Keynesian economics, or Keynes had nothing fundamentally new to add to orthodox economic theory.” Is Walras’s law incompatible with the different Keynesian and neoKeynesian models as they have evolved?
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