In Footnote 15 we referred to the MilesEzzell discount rate formula, which assumes that debt is not
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In Footnote 15 we referred to the Miles–Ezzell discount rate formula, which assumes that debt is not rebalanced continuously, but at one-year intervals. Derive this formula. Then use it to unlever Sangria’s WACC and calculate Sangria’s opportunity cost of capital. Your answer will be slightly different from the opportunity cost that we calculated in Section 19-3. Can you explain why?
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