Suppose that a country follows a managed-float policy but that its exchange rate is currently floating freely. In addition, suppose that it has a massive current account deficit. Does it also necessarily have a balance-of -payments deficit? If it decides to engage in a currency intervention to reduce the size of its current account deficit, will it buy or sell its own currency? As it does so, will its official reserves of foreign currencies get larger or smaller? Would that outcome indicate a balance-of-payments deficit or a balance-of- payments surplus?