1) Suppose a particle without spin (spin = 0) is subject to such potential energy asymmetric that no eigenvalue is degenerate. (a) The above statement is consistent with the Kramers' theorem? explain your answer. (b) Using reversal invariance temporal, show that for any self-state of the hamiltonian of this problem we have: (Z) = 0 (c) If the wave function of an eigenstate of this Hamiltonian is written: Fim (r)Y (0,4) Im what phase constraints do we get for the functions Flm (r) ?1