1. Which of the following is NOT an element of the management process?

A) planning

B) pricing

C) staffing

D) leading

E) controlling

2. Operations management is applicable

A) mostly to the service sector.

B) to services exclusively.

C) mostly to the manufacturing sector.

D) to all firms, whether manufacturing or service.

E) to the manufacturing sector exclusively.

3. Which of the following tasks within an Airline Company are related to Operations?

A) Crew Scheduling

B) International Monetary Exchange

C) Sales

D) Advertising

E) Accounts Payable

4. All of the following decisions fall within the scope of operations management except for

A) creating the company income statement.

B) design of goods and processes.

C) location of facilities.

D) managing quality.

E) layout of facilities.

5. SCC (Standards Council of Canada), ISM (Institute for Supply Management), APICS (Association for Operations Management), and PMI (Project Management Institute) are important professional organizations to operations management because they perform all of the following except

A) provide certification for professionals.

B) allow professionals to keep up with industry developments.

C) facilitate professional networking.

D) provide opportunities to enhance your education.

E) act as employment agencies for professionals.

6. WBS stands for which of the following project management tools?

A) Work Break Schedule

B) Work Breakdown Status

C) Work Breakdown Schedule

D) Work Breakdown Structure

E) Week Breakdown Schedule

7. A simple CPM network has three activities, A, B, and C. A is an immediate predecessor of B and of C. B is an immediate predecessor of C. The activity durations are A = 4, B = 3, C = 8.

A) The critical path is A-B-C, duration 15.

B) The critical path is A-C, duration 12.

C) The critical path is A-B-C, duration 13.5.

D) The critical path cannot be determined without knowing PERT expected activity times.

E) The network has no critical path.

8. A simple CPM network has five activities, A, B, C, D, and E. A is an immediate predecessor of C and of D. B is also an immediate predecessor of C and of D. C and D are both immediate predecessors of E.

A) There are two paths in this network.

B) There are four paths in this network.

C) There are five paths in this network.

D) There are 25 paths through this network.

E) There is no critical path in this network.

10. The phases of project management are

A) planning, scheduling, and controlling.

B) planning, programming, and budgeting.

C) planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling.

D) different for manufacturing projects than for service projects.

E) GANTT, CPM, and PERT.

11. Forecasts are usually classified by time horizon into three categories

A) short-range, medium-range, and long-range.

B) finance/accounting, marketing, and operations.

C) strategic, tactical, and operational.

D) exponential smoothing, regression, and time series.

E) departmental, organizational, and industrial.

12. Which of the following statements about time-series forecasting is true?

A) It is based on the assumption that future demand will be the same as past demand.

B) It makes extensive use of the data collected in the qualitative approach.

C) It is based on the assumption that the analysis of past demand helps predict future demand.

D) Because it accounts for trends, cycles, and seasonal patterns, it is always more powerful than associative forecasting.

E) All of the above are true.

14. Which time-series model below assumes that demand in the next period will be equal to the most recent period's demand?

A) naive approach

B) moving average approach

C) weighted moving average approach

D) exponential smoothing approach

E) random approach

15. The last four months of sales were 8, 10, 15, and 9 units. The last four forecasts were 5, 6, 11, and 12 units. The Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) is

A) 2.

B) -10.

C) 3.5.

D) 9.

E) 10.5.

16. A product's life cycle is divided into four stages, which are

A) introduction, growth, saturation, and maturity.

B) introduction, growth, stability, and decline.

C) introduction, maturity, saturation, and decline.

D) introduction, growth, maturity, and decline.

E) incubation, introduction, maturity, and decline.

17. When should product strategy focus on forecasting capacity requirements?

A) at the introduction stage of the product life cycle

B) at the growth stage of the product life cycle

C) at the maturity stage of the product life cycle

D) at the decline stage of the product life cycle

E) at the saturation stage of the product life cycle

18. An operations manager's ethical responsibilities

A) are limited to the production phase of product life cycle.

B) are limited to following published laws and regulations.

C) extend from design, to production, to final destruction/disposition of a product.

D) do not include being efficient with the firm's resources.

E) need not consider a product design's impact on the entire economy.

19. For a full-time college student, which of the following moments of truth exemplifies the customer's standard expectations?

A) Your advisor made you wait, even though you had an appointment.

B) You had to visit more than once to reach your academic advisor.

C) Your advisor was competent, helpful, and understanding.

D) Your advisor failed to keep her appointment with you.

E) Your advisor offered to work with you after regular work hours.

20. The role of decision trees in product design is

A) to rank products in descending order of their dollar contribution to the firm.

B) to better understand the customers' wants.

C) to calculate the expected value of each course of action.

D) to calculate the value of quality function deployment.

E) to calculate the value of the moment of truth.

21. Which of the following is not one of the major categories of costs associated with quality?

A) prevention costs

B) appraisal costs

C) internal failures

D) external failures

E) environmental costs

22. Quality can improve profitability by reducing costs. Which of the following is not an aspect of reduced costs by quality improvements?

A) flexible pricing

B) increased productivity

C) lower rework

D) lower warranty costs

E) lower scrap costs

23. PDCA, developed by Shewhart, stands for which of the following?

A) Plan-Do-Check-Act

B) Plan-Develop-Check-Accept

C) Problem-Develop Solution-Check-Act

D) Problem-Do-Continue-Act

E) Prevent-Detect-Contain-Act

24. Total quality management emphasizes

A) the responsibility of the quality control staff to identify and solve all quality-related problems.

B) a commitment to quality that goes beyond internal company issues to suppliers and customers.

C) a system where strong managers are the only decision makers.

D) a process where mostly statisticians get involved.

E) ISO 14000 certification.

25. A successful TQM program incorporates all of the following except

A) continuous improvement.

B) employee involvement.

C) benchmarking.

D) centralized decision-making authority.

E) just-in-time.

I need some detail explanation with answers.