A 2.2% coupon bond with 16 years left to maturity is offered for sales at $952.18. What yield to maturity is the bond offering? (assume that interest payments are semi-annual). 1.28% O 1.86% O 2.13% O 2.57% A firm might consider changing from a firm-wide WACC approach to a Divisional WACC approach for which of the following reasons? A divisional WACC approach would reduce complexity and be easier to explain A divisional WACC approach would result in more higher risk-projects being accepted A divisional WACC approach would guarantee that projects are not incorrectly accepted or rejected O A divisional WACC approach would result in a higher threshold for accepting projects in a division with higher risk