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(a) Explain the implication of Ricardian equivalence for fiscal policy? What are the reasons for Ricardian equivalence may not hold. (b) Is the notion of
(a) Explain the implication of Ricardian equivalence for fiscal policy? What are the reasons for Ricardian equivalence may not hold.
(b) Is the notion of "fiscal gaps" useful in judging the long-term fiscal situation of a country? Explain your answer
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