A financial instrument pays the following REAL cash flows $($CF$)$:$$Year $0$: CF $=$ $$0$Year $1$: CF $=$ $$330$Year $2$: CF $=$ $$350$Year $3$: CF $=$ $$300$Given the nominal discount rate is $8\mathrm{.}00\%$ and the rate of inflation is $3\mathrm{.}00\%,$ calculate the EXACT $($not approximate!$)$ present value of this financial instrument $($rounded to $2$ decimals$).$a$.$ $$843\mathrm{.}77$b$.$ $$924\mathrm{.}84$c$.$ $$890\mathrm{.}90$d$.$ $$893\mathrm{.}30$e$.$ $$936\mathrm{.}66$