A financial intermediary$$s balance sheet is such that DA$=5,$ DL$=3.$ This FI has $$300$ million in assets and net worth $($equity$)$ of $$50$ million.

The CFO points out that there is a $4-$year SWAP contract available. This SWAP pays $5\%$ fixed $($s$.$a$)$ against $6-$month LIBOR. He also mentions that the duration of $4-$year T$-$Bonds with a $5\%$ coupon $($semi$-$annual$)$ is $3\mathrm{.}2$ years. What side of the SWAP should the FI and what should be notional principal of the contract to fully hedge the interest rate exposure?