According to one study, 28% of Black applicants for mortgages are denied while only 9% of white applicants for mortgages are denied. This is a correlation, not a causal effect. How would you define the causal effect of race on the probability of being denied a mortgage, using one of the two definitions introduced in class? Does the causal effect coincide with the idea of "racial bias"? That is, is it possible that there is a causal effect but no racial bias or that there is racial bias but no causal effect