Another property (call it Property B), has the same after-tax IRR as Property A (the property in question 5E). However, its return is partitioned as follows:

Proportion of IRR made up by:

After Tax Cash Flow from Rental Operations: 10%

After Tax Cash Flow from Property Sale (Year 3): 90%

Is an investment in Property B more of, or less of, a risk as compared to an investment in Property A? Please explain your answer.