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As IRR itself already meant the interest rate at which the NPV of all the cash flows equals 0, what is the logic behind this?

As IRR itself already meant the interest rate at which the NPV of all the cash flows equals 0, what is the logic behind this?

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Internal Rate of Return (IRR) If Internal Required Positive Rate of > Rate of then, Net Present Return Return Value If Internal Required Rate of Rate of Return Return = then Zero Net Present Value If Internal Required Negative Rate of

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