Assume both portfolios A and $B$ are well diversified, that $E(r_A)=14\mathrm{.}8\%$ and $E(r_B)=15\mathrm{.}8\%.$

If the economy has only one risk factor, and ${}_A=1$ while ${}_B=1\mathrm{.}1,$ what must be the risk$-$

free rate? $($Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer as a percentage

rounded to $1$ decimal places.$)$