Based on the equation, Y = Yp + a(P - Pe), why, in the new classical view, is the long-run aggregate supply curve vertical?

Group of answer choices

In the long run, the aggregate supply curve is perfectly elastic (small price changes cause huge changes in AS), thus the AS curve is vertical.

In the long run, firms can distinguish changes in the relative prices of their products from changes in the price level, implying the actual price level will equal the expected price level. With P = Pe, the second term of the equation equals zero and the aggregate quantity of output supplied equals potential GDP.

In the long run, the component a, which is equal to zero, is solely responsible for the slope of the AS curve.

In the long run, for a particular expected price level, Pe, an increase in the actual price level, P, increases the value of the second term in the aggregate supply equation, thereby raising the aggregate quantity of output supplied.