Hello, I have presentation regarding the doc attached in couple days and there are several things I am not very clear of while reading and would love to have it address throughly. I am trying to understand and organize into sections but I specifically want to have these answered and explained.

1) What would be the main difference between

THE METHOD USED BY THE COURTS TO ASSESS DAMAGES FOR LOSS OF FUTURE EARNINGS IN ENGLAND AND WALES

VS

THE ASSESSMENT OF LOSS OF FUTURE EARNINGS IN THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA (Please help me also go through the four procedure it presented)

2) In the section "THE METHOD USED BY THE COURTS TO ASSESS DAMAGES FOR LOSS OF FUTURE EARNINGS IN ENGLAND AND WALES" I'm confused about the multiplier and the discount. Especially where the phrase says

"This number of years is discounted to allow for several factors with the result that, for example, an injury to a young person causing a forty-year earnings loss produces a multiplier of, at most, only twenty-four. There are three main reason for making such a discount First reason = takes into account the fact that the claimant receives, and is able to invest, the damages log before he would have been paid the wages had he not been injured"

What would this multiplier and discount mean? Especially this concept of discount and that first reason??

3) What makes this an Alternative Method of Calculation more accurate and different between England and Wales and US assessing the damages for loss of future earnings?

4) Lastly, is it possible to help me go through that formula presented in Alternative Method of Calculation?

Ex. Earnings Loss (WagePls Employment) & Earnings Loss₂ (Wages(1 G₂) x Employment)

Reference :

https://docplayer.net/1397800-Court-awards-of-damages-for-loss-of-future-earnings-an-empirical-study-and-an-alternative-method-of-calculation.html