Question
How exactly has Bentham justified requiring individuals to act for the good of all rather than for their own good? Is there a significant gap
How exactly has Bentham justified requiring individuals to act for the good of all rather than for their own good?
Is there a significant gap in Bentham's reasoning at this point? If so, does Hobbes give you an idea of how to fill the gap?
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Business Law Principles for Today's Commercial Environment
Authors: David P. Twomey, Marianne M. Jennings, Stephanie M Greene
5th edition
1305575156, 978-1305887657, 1305887654, 978-1305575158
