How would you show that if the demand for a product is perfectly price inelastic, the burden
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How would you show that if the demand for a product is perfectly price inelastic, the burden (incidence) of a specific tax imposed on each unit produced (sold) will be shifted fully on to consumers?
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![image text in transcribed](https://s3.amazonaws.com/si.experts.images/answers/2024/07/6685fad26ce27_5306685fad232e10.jpg)
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