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If A owns 100% property. Then give 50% property interest to B (who is a spouse). There has been a CGT event. If A and

If A owns 100% property. Then give 50% property interest to B (who is a spouse). There has been a CGT event.

If A and B now sell whole property, what acquisition cost do we use to determine the cost base? Is it the acquisition cost of when A first purchased the property OR is it the acquisition cost (i.e. the market value of the transaction where 50% was given to B)?

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