Judicial precedent and the separation of powers

$21$ days ago

"The courts are the institutions through which the law is applied and enforced. Therefore, a judge or other presiding officer has to interpret and apply the law, not make it$."($Fouch$,$ M$.$A$.($ed$).2014.$ Legal Principles of Contracts and Commercial Law. $8$th edition. Durban: LexisNexis at p $8)$

Do you think that judicial precedent as "judge$-$made law" encroaches on the doctrine of separation of powers between Parliament, the ludiciary and the Executive? Motivate your view.