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Let F be a pseudorandom permutation of {0,1}. Consider the following encryption scheme (E, D): Ex(x) = fx(x), Dk(y) = fx ?(y). Prove that this

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Let F be a pseudorandom permutation of {0,1}. Consider the following encryption scheme (E, D): Ex(x) = fx(x), Dk(y) = fx ?(y). Prove that this scheme is not a CPA-secure encryption

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