Quote from page $66$: $$Then the share of the costs of illness that are financed out of reduced consumption is simply $/$Cij$.$ I think this formula is wrong. Am I correct? Derive an expression for the share of the costs of illness that are financed out of reduced consumption. Use this expression to show that indeed the loss in consumption is $35$ percent, as shown on the second row of table $6($which I believe is correct$).$Table $6-$Estimating Magntude of Consuniption

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