The Pew Research center reported some years ago that 18% of women 40-44 years of age have never given birth.

1. Suppose we take a random sample of 200 women in this age range. Assuming the parameter described above is still correct, what is the probability that 20% or more of the women in our sample have never given birth?
2. Suppose we take a random sample of 300 women in this age range, and 66 of them (22%) have never given birth. Assuming the parameter above is still correct, is that unusually high? Explain.