"two investors are evaluating GE's stock for possible purchase. They agree on the expected value of D1 and on the expected future dividend growth rate further they agree on the riskiness of the stock. However one investor normally holds the stock for two years while the other stockholder for 10 years. On the basis of the type of analysis, should they both be willing to pay the same price for the stock?"

I know they should both be paying the same for both investors but why should the price of the stock be the same for investors that require the same rate of return?