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When oligopoly and/or technical rents accrue to a firm, why must we conclude that this revenue is necessarily a transfer of wealth or income from
When oligopoly and/or technical rents accrue to a firm, why must we conclude that this revenue is necessarily a transfer of wealth or income from other individuals or groups in the economy? Which individuals or groups in particular are likely to be affected and why? In your answer refer to at least one of the following: 1) The labour theory of value 2) Technical and/oligopoly rent as examples of economic rent
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