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Why do judges rely on case law in order to determine an element from a statute, like intent? The government, via the legislative branch, pass

Why do judges rely on case law in order to determine an element from a statute, like intent? The government, via the legislative branch, pass laws designed to protect people from themselves. For example, seat belts and helmets. After 9/11 everyone willingly walked through x-ray machines, took off their shoes, and permitted security to rummage through our bags. Yet, the imposition of wearing a mask to reduce the spread of COVID was seen by many as a violation of their rights. Does the government have a right to impose laws designed to protect ourselves from "ourselves" and from "each other"? Defend your position. Absolutely no use of first-person. The source cited must be your voice.

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