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Why would rpt = 0 make the demand curve solely determined by the inflation target? the AD curve in this problem: Y = at -

Why would rpt = 0 make the demand curve solely determined by the inflation target? the AD curve in this problem: Y = at - b*rpt - bm(inflation - inflation target). Wouldnt rpt = 0 just make the intercept increase to only at? What does at represent? is it inflation

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