You are a fixed-income investment manager evaluating two corporate bonds, each with a maturity value of $100,000. Each bond matures in exactly 10 years and each bond has a yield-to-maturity (YTM) of 5%. Bond 1 pays a coupon of 8% and Bond 2 pays a coupon of 3%. Assume annual coupon payments. Without doing any math, which bond trades at a higher price? Which bond is more sensitive to changes in interest rates? If both bonds have the identical maturity date and YTM, then why do they trade at different prices? Is this a violation of The Law of One Price? If you buy Bond 1, what is the NPV of the cash flows? What does a bonds YTM represent?