Let (X sim operatorname{Geom}(p)), let (n) be a non-negative integer, and let (Y sim operatorname{Bin}(n, p)). Show
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Let \(X \sim \operatorname{Geom}(p)\), let \(n\) be a non-negative integer, and let \(Y \sim \operatorname{Bin}(n, p)\). Show that \(P(X=n)=\) \((1 / n) P(Y=1)\).
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First lets begin by understanding the two probability distributions involved a Geometric distributio...View the full answer
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