Imagine we have the following pieces of evidence.

● Adults with restricted frontal lobe lesions are known to perform poorly on a certain task, unlike control subjects.

● We see from fMRI scans that frontal lobe areas are active in normal subjects who are performing the same task.

● Children at a certain age are unable to perform this task.

It seems logical to infer these two points.

● Some of the frontal lobe areas in question are not yet developed at this age.

● These are the areas responsible for someone’s ability to perform the task.

Do you think this evidence is enough to make both these inferences? Why or why not?