In some instances, in Naeem et als (2012) study it looked like patients did not have any
Question:
In some instances, in Naeem et al’s (2012) study it looked like patients did not have any appropriate words for their experiences and they were using the closest equivalents that corresponded to their cultural schemas (for example,
“tension”).
To what extent do you think cultural dierences in the perception of depression are inuenced by language? Review the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis of linguistic relativity.
If language does inuence perception of illness, would bilingual interviews with the patients be benecial?
Imagine you are treating a depressed patient in Pakistan, his English prociency is low, and both of you speak good Urdu. Would you still choose to conduct therapy sessions in English?
If you are interested, use a search engine to look for supporting and contradicting evidence for the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis. Note that it should be empirical evidence, preferably from controlled experimental studies.
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