Two separate research studies conducted in 1994 came up with the same finding, that men in the corporate world who had working wives earn less money than the men whose wives stayed home to care for the children (as reported in Newsweek, October 14, 1994, page 44). In both studies the causal inference was drawn that the reason these men earned less was because their wives were in the workforce. It was suggested that men with working wives are therefore subject to some of the same social inequalities as are working women. Thus, when it comes to salary increases and promotions, men with working wives are treated with the same bias and disdain as are the working wives themselves.

What alternative explanations might you suggest that are still consistent with these data?