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When applying for a nonimmigrant visa, there is a legal presumption that the applicant has immigrant intent and must prove otherwise (i.e., that they actually

When applying for a nonimmigrant visa, there is a legal presumption that the applicant has immigrant intent and must prove otherwise (i.e., that they actually have nonimmigrant intent) if they are to receive their visa. Does this legal presumption make sense to you? Why or why not?

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