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Suppose IBM is currently selling for 100 per share, the one period risk free rate is 8% and IBM pays no dividends over the period.

Suppose IBM is currently selling for 100 per share, the one period risk free rate is 8% and IBM pays no dividends over the period. Consider a one period European call on IBM with K=$50.


a. IBM will either go up by 20% or down by 5%. What is the value of the call one period from expiration?


b. Now suppose IBM will go up by 40% or down by 40%. 


c. What is the value of the call one period from expiration? Explain any change or lack of it relative.


 Now suppose IBM will go up by 40% or down by 60%. What is the value of the call one period from expiration? Explain any change or lack of it relative

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To calculate the value of the European call option we can use the riskneutral valuation approach assuming a oneperiod binomial model Lets calculate th... blur-text-image

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